Текстовая расшифровка видео
You’ve all been sending me some really great questions, so I thought I would make a video to answer some of them! In this video I’ll answer a few of the quick, easy questions, and then for the longer questions I might make one video for each.
Ok, so let’s go!
This question is from Olga:
For the verb «to be» in the past with «I», which option is correct: «I was» or «I were»?
Well ,Olga, in the past tense, we ALWAYS use “I was”. Every time. The only case in which we can use “I were”, is in the conditional. For example:
“If I were a millionaire I would buy a big house and ten cars”.
So, if it’s past tense, it will ALWAYS be “I was”.
I hope that helps! Thanks for your question.
Ok, next question. This one is from N:
“Why can we only say “nineteen twelve” for 1912, but both “twenty twelve” and “two-thousand and twelve” are acceptable for 2012?”
Ok, this is a very interesting question. It is interesting because it is a change that has happened very recently, and it is the first time that many people can remember where the date has been said in this way. This is how I see it:
In regular, everyday spoken English, it’s most common to say “two thousand and twelve”, because since the year 2000, this is how we have said the date. “two thousand and three” (2003) sounds better than “twenty three” (23), doesn’t it! So now it is just normal for us to say “two thousand and…”.
However, in newspaper language, magazines and official announcements “twenty twelve” is more common. For example, the “Twenty Twelve Olympics”, or “Eurovision Twenty Twelve”. So, sporting events and other official things are said like this.
So, if you are just talking about the date in a normal context, try to use “two thousand and…”. But really, there is no official rule because it is a very new idea! So you can decide for yourself which is best for you. J
Thanks for the great question!
Next, a question about pronunciation.
“Which is the correct pronunciation, “of-en” or “often”?”
Another great question! And luckily, the answer is very simple:
Both! In the USA and Britain, both pronunciations are perfectly fine. I’m sure that somebody somewhere will tell you that one way is better, or that one way is wrong, but I usually hear people using both variations, and I sometimes use both myself!
I hope that helps.
Finally, another great question, from Kate:
“What is the difference between “I have” and “I’ve got”?”
Well, Kate, here is another nice, simple answer:
There is no difference! You can use both. In the UK, both variations are correct. Just remember that when we use “have got”, we usually make a contraction: (I’ve). In the USA you will most likely only hear “I have”, but it’s not wrong to say “I’ve got”. In fact, it’s more common in Britain to say “I’ve got”!
So, that’s it for today. Thanks again for your great questions, guys. I have a couple more that I will answer soon, but they were a little longer so I will need some more time to give you a good answer!
Thanks for watching 🙂 I hope this was useful and helpful for everybody.
See you all soon!